-1
If ISP (A)
can be routed to ISP (B)
, and ISP (B)
can be routed to ISP (C)
and vice versa, then why ISP (A)
and ISP (C)
can't be routed through ISP (B)
to each other?
The packets are routed like this from ISP (A)
to ISP (C)
:
A---D---E---F---C (it goes to a far away locations before getting back)
Why would an ISP carry traffic that nobody's paying them to carry? – David Schwartz – 2015-08-20T16:20:21.850