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and if so how will the header look like? I mean if the client sends a ipv6 header what will the source address be?
user2304458
Posted 2018-10-01T19:40:36.260
Reputation: 119
Can a client with a public ipv4 address communicate with a server with a public ipv6 address?
Answers
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Although they share many features in common, they're completely separate protocols with completely separate address spaces. For an IPv4 host to communicate with an IPv6 host, you would need to use a translation system, like NAT64, which does the conversions needed. There are issues with this approach, especially with protocols that assume a particular address format, but it can be made to (mostly) work.
A better approach, if you can do it, would be to get an IPv6 tunnel so that you don't have to go through a translator.
ErikF
Posted 2018-10-01T19:40:36.260
Reputation: 249
Does my ISP make a NAT64 available? And similiar who makes a tunnel server available? – user2304458 – 2018-10-01T20:18:49.933
Without knowing your ISP, I'd say that it's unlikely that they have a NAT64 translator. Regarding IPv6 tunnels, the link in the answer has a large number of providers. I personally use Hurricane Electric's IPv6 tunnel broker, but I know people who like using SixXS; they are free and are well-documented.
– ErikF – 2018-10-01T20:23:18.720@ErikF: SixXS have completely shut down all services more than a year ago. – user1686 – 2018-10-01T22:08:55.860
@grawity Thanks for letting me know. I haven't kept track of tunnel providers very much because my HE tunnel has worked without any real issues for almost 10 years! – ErikF – 2018-10-01T22:53:47.710