2
I have a LAN in the following configuration:
- 192.168.1.1: Modem
- 192.168.1.2: Router
- 192.168.1.3 and on: Computers
Router 192.168.1.2 acts as the gateway of the following subnet:
- 192.168.0.1: Router
- 192.168.0.2 and on: Computers
Is there a way to allow computers in the 192.168.1.* network to access computers in the 192.168.0.* network (including being able initiate a connection, not just respond to requests) without merging the subnet into the main network?
1Are there 2 routers in play? If one router has its computers connected to the LAN port, and the WAN port of that router is connected to the other network, then the answer is no, unless you set that router in bridge mode which disables the router and turns it into a hub, making both lans joined together with the same ip addresses. So that would merge them and thus is a no. – LPChip – 2018-03-18T20:27:11.830
1Thanks for providing a definition for "being visible". People use that word to mean 3 or 4 different things at once. – user1686 – 2018-03-18T21:42:23.347
What is your meaning of router. router has a very specific meaning in networking, but ISPs provide a box that they call a router (yes it has a router in it, but most customers know nothing about it). So is it the thing from your ISP? also is it the same router on
192.168.1.2
and192.168.0.1
? – ctrl-alt-delor – 2018-03-18T22:53:10.060