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I just wanted to ask that what is the reason behind making the maximum utilization of the processor ,that is ,whenever at any instant of time ,the scheduler makes sure that the processor must not remain idle and it must always be in the process of executing some process,so does that not require more power to be consumed by the processor.
So basically what is the reason behind always making the processor run,what would be the drawback if the processor remains idle,will that not save the power consumed by the processor.
2I believe that the windows-task-scheduler tag is inappropriate... Anyway the question is really strange and I wonder if you just may have not made yourself clear :) – Vitas – 2015-01-18T20:48:36.690
Why does an employer want the maximum productivity out of an employee or a ROI (return on investment) for a piece of capital equipment? If you don't care about maximizing utilization, then go back to batch processing or a single-user PC running non-multitasking MS-DOS. – sawdust – 2015-01-19T01:58:13.253