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I'm going to make a few assumptions based on my current knowledge, so please correct me if I'm wrong.
Lets say you want to go to www.example.com but your browser, host and ISP nameserver do not have the DNS entry cached. The ISP nameserver does not know the authoritative nameserver for example.com either.
At this point the ISP-nameserver would query the .com TLD nameserver. This server would return the authoritative nameserver for example.com (ie. ns1.example.com) which would then be used to query the A record for www.example.com.
My question is: How does the TLD nameserver for the .com domain 'know' the authoritative namesservers for example.com. How does it acquire this information?
When a new domain is registered the NS records are created and must be propagated to the TLD nameserver somehow. How does this work?
You as a company or a person interested in owning a DNS name would reach out to a DNS provider and work with them on that part. Your ISP can have absolutely nothing to do with this for example if you buy DNS certs from GoDaddy and use Comcast for ISP. I think you're making an incorrect assumption so look over GoDaddy.com and how that works (that's only one provider) but they can manager the DNS records for a domain for you or allow you to do so. You'd work with your ISP to setup "reverse" DNS records though and tell them to point one of their IP's to a DNS you setup that you own. (cont) – Pimp Juice IT – 2017-07-28T02:36:42.000
So since Comcast may give you a public IP block, you may want to have a valid reverse DNS lookup to point back to your servers on the other side of your IPS router and firewalls so you tell Comcast to setup in their DNS that they control to say ip x.x.x.x points to your DNS record of <domain>.com – Pimp Juice IT – 2017-07-28T02:39:46.007